We need to visit Austria and italy this summer, but no appointments are available for both of them in India
France Switzerland and Netherlands are issuing visa
Is it ok to NOT travel to the visa issuing country during this trip ?
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No. You must apply for a visa from the country which is your "primary destination". Although it can sometimes be tricky to determine which country is the primary destination, it certainly wouldn't be a country you don't plan to visit at all. If you try to do this, your visa application will be rejected. If it's somehow granted (say, if you were to lie in the application) you might not be allowed to board your flight, and you certainly wouldn't be allowed into the country.
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Is it ok to NOT travel to the visa issuing country during this trip?
There are scenarios where you might end up doing that so it is not strictly forbidden. The issue is that neither France nor the Netherlands are supposed to issue a visa if you do not intend to visit the country ever. The only way they could consider it is if you have a serious justification to get a multiple-entry visa and you do intend to visit France or the Netherlands on other trips.
Otherwise, what's most likely to happen is that they redirect you towards the Italian or Austrian consulate. So applying for a French or Dutch visa would not be very useful and the problem you are worrying about will never occur as you wouldn't get the visa in the first place. Instead, what you can do is look for another Italian or Austrian consulate or ask them for advice (neither of which are very practical but this is still what are supposed to do…).
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